# Sample Questions – Third Class, Parts A1 & A2

(NOTE: these questions are intended as representations of the style of questions that may appear on examinations, they are not intended as study material and, as such, may not be in line with any current examination syllabus)

1.In a right angle triangle, the sine of an acute angle is equal to:

B. adjacent side / opposite side

C. adjacent side / opposite side

D. opposite side / hypotenuse

E. hypotenuse / opposite side

2. If a right-angle triangle has an angle of 28O 37′ and the hypotenuse is 120 mm, the length of the opposite side is:

A. 105.34 mm

B. 57.48 mm

C. 136.70 mm

D. 250.5 mm

E. 221 mm

3. In the equation 0.004 + D = 0.0042, the value of D is:

A. 1.05

B. 1.68 x 10-5

C. 0.0002

D. 0.0082

E. -0.0082

4. As the cosine decreases, the:

A. value of the angle decreases

B. value of the angle increases

C. value of the hypotenuse decreases

D. A and C above

E. none of the above

5. Any two angles whose sum is 90° are:

A. complementary angles

B. right angles

C. tangent to each other

D. obtuse angles

E. reflex angles

6. One is the trigonometric value of:

A. sine of 90°

B. cosine of 0°

C. tangent of 45°

D. A, B and C above

E. A and C above

7. A automobile travels at 60 miles per hour. Expressed in metres per second, this would be equivalent to:

A. 0.0268 m/s

B. 26.81 m/s

C. 1609 m/s

D. 348 m/s

E. 34.8 m/s

8. The force that is equal in magnitude but opposite in direction to the resultant force is called:

A. the component

B. the element

C. the equilibrant

D. the impedance

E. the displacement

9. A scalar quantity is one which has only magnitude and can be fully described by:

A. giving direction

B. a number with the necessary unit

C. using a force term

D. length, width and height

E. volume and density

10. A body can be put into equilibrium by applying an additional force equal in magnitude but opposite in direction to the:

A. scalar

B. vector

C. equilibrant

D. resultant

E. component

11. A displacement of 9 m north of point A, and another of 6 m west of point A can be added to give a resultant displacement from point A of:

A. 15 m N of W

B. 3 m N of W

C. 10 m N of W

D. 12.5 m N of W

E. 10.8 m N of W

12. The moment of a force about a point is:

A. the component that will cause equilibrium

B. the force x resultant

C. the force x equilibrant

D. a twisting or turning effect

E. equal to velocity/gravity

13. When the co-efficient of friction increases and the force between two surfaces remains constant, the friction force will:

A. remain constant

B. decrease

C. increase

D. move the weight easier

E. decrease exponentially

14. A body having a gravitational force of 2000 N, is pulled along a horizontal surface at constant speed by a rope that makes an angle of 20° above the horizontal. If the pull on the rope is 150 N, the coefficient of sliding friction is:

A. 0.0257

B. 0.0275

C. 0.0705

D. 0.0723

E. 0.075

15. Energy can be:

A. created

B. transformed to different forms

C. destroyed

D. A and C

E. all of the above

16. Velocity ratio is:

A. ideal efficiency

C. actual efficiency

E. final speed divided by initial speed

17. A 1 N weight has a kinetic energy of 1 J when its speed is:

A. 0.45 m/s

B. 1 m/s

C. 1.4 m/s

D. 4.4 m/s

E. 44 m/s

18. The working stress of a material that has an ultimate strength of 490 MPa and a safety factor of 7 would be:

A. 70 MPa

B. 3430 MPa

C. 7000 kPa

D. 34 300 kPa

E. 490 kPa

19. According to Hooke’s Law, the stress in an elastic body is directly proportional to the strain if:

A. the yield point of the material is exceeded

B. the elastic limit of the material is not exceeded

C. the elastic limit of the material is exceeded

D. the load is applied vertically

E. the factor of safety is not exceeded

20. The factor of safety is always expressed:

A. in kPa D. in Joules

B. in Newton metres

C. as a product

E. as a ratio

21. When calculating the ultimate stress of a material, we should:

A. multiply the maximum load by the original cross-sectional area

B. multiply the maximum load by the original cross-sectional area

C. divide the maximum load by the new cross-sectional area

D. divide the breaking load by the new cross-sectional area

E. divide the maximum load by the original cross-sectional area

22. Safe working stress is determined by:

A. interpolation

B. extrapolation

C. dividing the ultimate strength by the factor of safety

D. multiplying the ultimate strength by the strain

E. the average value of breaking stress determined by testing

23. A 6 m long cantilever beam carries a concentrated load of 45 kN at its free end. What is the shear force at the wall?

A. 270 kNm

B. 270 kN

C. 7.5 kN/m

D. 0.133 kN

E. 45 kN

24. When classifying beams, the term simple beam refers to a beam:

A. that is supporting one concentrated load

B. that supports a uniform load .

C. that is supported at two ends

D. that is supported at one end

E. that is supported at any number of points

25. The term _____ is used as a measure of the quantity of matter.

A. volume

B. weight

C. mass

D. relative density

E. specific gravity

26. A 10 m long steel pipe when heated to increase its temperature by 85 °C, will expand approximately:

A. 1 cm

B. 0.6 m

C. 6 mm

E. 85 mm

27. The most common scale in use is the:

A. Fahrenheit

B. Celsius

C. Rankine

D. Kelvin

28. Four pieces of iron are heated in a furnace to high temperatures. The one at the highest temperature would appear:

A. rusty

B. yellow

C. orange

D. red

E. white

29. The amount of heat required to completely melt 25 kg of ice from a temperature of –10 °C is approximately:

A. 8885 kJ

B. 4125 kJ

C. 615 kJ

D. 250 kJ

E. 8908 kJ

30. “Heat will flow from a hot substance to a colder substance unaided, but it is impossible for heat to flow from a cold substance to a hotter one without the aid of mechanical work” is:

A. the first law of thermodynamics

B. Charles’ Law

C. the mechanical equivalent of heat

D. Boyle’s Law

E. None of the above

31. The heat required to raise the temperature of water at a pressure of 225 kPa from 0 °C to 124 °C is:

A. 2712.1 kJ/kg

B. 518.7 kJ/kg

C. 2191.3 kJ/kg

D. 504.7 kJ/kg

E. 520.72 kJ/kg

32. When heat is supplied to a liquid in sufficient quantity to change the liquid to a vapour without changing the temperature, the heat supplied is known as:

A. latent heat of gasification

B. latent heat of volatilization

C. latent heat of evaporation

D. sensible heat of evaporation

E. latent heat of fusion

33. The dryness fraction of steam at a pressure of 400 kPa and a heat content of 2500 kJ/kg is:

A. 0.89

B. 0.91

C. 0.92

D. 0.39

E. 0.99

34. The temperature of saturated steam vapor at 980 kPa is:

A. 176.36 °C

B. 179.02 °C

C. 179.58 °C

D. 181.24 °C

E. 179.91 °C

35. Steam engines, steam turbines, gas turbines and internal combustion engines are examples of:

A. reciprocating engines

B. heat engines

C. rotary engines

D. thermodynamic pumps

E. heat pumps

36. The rate at which heat flow through a slab of a material does not depend on:

A. the temperature difference between the faces of the slab

B. the thickness of the slab

C. the area of the slab

D. the specific heat of the material

E. the thermal conductivity of the slab

37. Expansion of a gas is said to be adiabatic when expansion takes place at :

A. constant temperature

B. rising temperature

C. falling temperature

D. constant volume

E. constant pressure

38. If 10 m3 of a gas at a pressure of 20 kPa (gauge) and a temperature of 10 °C are compressed to 5 m3 while the temperature is reduced to –20 °C, the final gauge pressure will be: (Consider the atmospheric pressure to be 95 kPa)

A. 110.6 kPa

B. 205.6 kPa

C. 365 kPa

D. 460 kPa

E. 516 kPa

39. Use of the equation PV = a constant, means the numerical result of pressure times volume for a compression or expansion process will:

A. decrease as the temperature increases

B. increase as the temperature increases

C. change from positive to negative for an increasing vacuum

D. be the same at any point in the process

E. vary depending on the speed of compression or expansion

40. A gas occupies 8.62 m3 at 1800 kPa and 26 °C. It is heated until the final volume is 9.0 m3 and pressure is 2500 kPa. the final temperature will be approximately:

A. 276 °C

B. 136 °C

C. 433 °C

D. 161 °C

E. 252 °C

41. H2SO4 is the chemical formula for:

A. carbonic acid

B. sulfuric acid

C. nitric acid

D. hydrochloric acid

E. hydrogen sulfide

42. Protons have a mass number of:

A. Almost zero

B. One

C. Six

D. Twelve

E. Two

43. A pinch of salt is added to a glass of water. The result is:

A. an element

B. a compound

C. a solution

D. a heterogeneous substance

E. a compound

44. Compounds classified as salts may have the following characteristics:

1. have a basic effect

2. have an acid effect

3. be neutral

4. change red litmus paper blue

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 1, 3, 4

C. 2, 3, 4

D. 1, 2, 3, 4

E. 1, 2, 4

45. The most common material used in making large industrial diesel engine pistons is:

A. Carbon steel

B. Cast iron

C. Brass

D. Bronze

E. Aluminum

46. Malleable cast iron is produced by:

A. adding carbon to pig iron

B. reducing iron content

C. heating and cooling white cast iron at a controlled rate

E. heating and striking the hot metal with a hammer to compact the material

47. Steam turbine bearings are usually made of:

1. white metal

2. brass

3. bronze

4. Aluminum

A. 1, 2

B. 1, 3

C. 1, 4

D. 2, 3

E. 3, 4

48. The most common thread used in North America on fasteners such as bolts, is the:

A. Whitworth

B. Unified National

C. Unified Standard

D. American National Standards Institute

E. American Society of Mechanical Engineers

49. Orthographic projection means:

A. view with base lines at 45 degrees

B. views at right angles

C. view of a cutting plane

D. view with base lines at 30 degrees

E. view with base lines at 60 degrees

50. The classes of fastening devices are:

A. bolts and glue

B. rivets and bolts

C. permanent and removable

D. welds and bolts

51. (Jurisdictional Question) A Third Class Engineer’s Certificate of Competency qualifies the holder to work as a Chief Engineer for a power plant not exceeding:

A. 3000 kW

B. 2000 kW

C. 10 000 kW

D. 5000 kW

E. 15 000 kW

52.(Jurisdictional Question) In Alberta, Boiler and Pressure Vessel Safety is regulated by:

A. the Boilers and Pressure Vessels Act

B. the Design, Construction and Installation of Boilers and Pressure Vessels Regulations

C. the ASME Code

D. the Alberta Labour Act

E. the Safety Codes Act

53. (Jurisdictional Question) A Third Class Certificate of Competency enables the holder to work as a shift Engineer of a power plant not exceeding:

A. 1000 kW

B. 5000 kW

C. 10 000 kW

D. 15 000 kW

E. none of the above

54. Safety valves shall be designed to attain full lift at a pressure above set pressure but not exceeding:

A. 0.6%

B. 6%

C. 5%

D. 3%

E. 4%

55. A passage way of at least ______ metres in width and clear of all obstructions shall be provided on both sides and the rear of the boiler.

A. 3.0

B. 2.0

C. 0.5

D. 0.6

E. 1.0

56. The blow-off tank for a boiler operating at 2200 kPa must have a design pressure of at least:

A. 1000 kPa

B. 690 kPa

C. 490 kPa

D. 500 kPa

E. 220 kPa

57. A hydrostatic test consists of completely filling the boiler with water and the applying a water pressure:

A. 2 times the maximum allowable working pressure

B. 3 times the maximum allowable working pressure .

C. 1.5 times the maximum allowable working pressure

D. 2.5 times the maximum allowable working pressure

E. equal to the maximum allowable working pressure

58. Which of the following equation(s) is/are correct for complete combustion?

1. C + O2 = CO

2. 2H2 + O2 = 2H2O

3. C + CO2 = 2CO

4. S + O2 = 2SO

A. 1, 3

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

E. 4

59. The formation of carbon monoxide in the furnace is undesirable because it is:

1. explosive

2. poisonous

3. non-combustible

4. inefficient

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1, 2 and 4

C. 1, 3 and 4

D. 2, 3 and 4

E. 1, 2, 3 and 4

60. The advantages of oil over coal as a boiler fuel are:

1. reduced storage problems

2. harder to control

3. less handling equipment

4. less labour required

5. lower combustion efficiency

A. 1, 4, 5

B. 3, 4, 5

C. 1, 3, 4

D. 2, 3, 4

E. 1, 2, 5

61.Complete combustion will take place only when:

1. the temperature of the fuel-air mixture will be at least equal to the ignition temperature.

2. there is sufficient oxygen present for combustion.

3. the oxygen is in intimate contact with the fuel.

4. there is an excess of fuel present for combustion.

A. 1, 3 and 4

B. 1, 2 and 4

C. 2, 3 and 4

D. 1, 2 and 3

E. 1 and 4 only

62. The swing check valve:

A. offers high resistance to flow

B. offers little resistance to flow

C. has a dashpot in its design to cushion the action of the disc

D. causes the flow though the check valve to change direction

E. none of the above

63. In order to prevent leakage at low pressure steam flange connections:

A. rubber gaskets should be used

B. faces should be concave so the gasket will adhere to the flange

C. plastic gaskets should be used

D. silicone gaskets should be used

E. none of the above

64. Steam separators:

1. cause the steam to suddenly change its direction

2. impart a whirling motion to the steam .

3. use baffles to cause the steam flow to change direction

4. are not required on steam turbine lines

5. are sometimes called steam purifiers

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 1, 2, 3, 4

C. 3, 4, 5

D. 1, 2, 3, 5

E. 1, 4, 5

65. As the temperature of carbon conductors rises, the electrical resistance generally:

A. Increases linearly

B. Decreases

C. Remains constant

D. Increases hyperpolically

E. Increases parabolically

66. The resistance of a conductor does not depend on its:

A. mass

B. length

C. cross-sectional area

D. resistivity

E. temperature

67. The total currents away from a point equal:

A. the algebraic sum of all currents

B. sum of currents into the point

C. sum of currents in all directions

D. zero

E. the circuit rating

68. The power factor of an AC circuit is equal to:

A. the sine of the phase angle

B. the square root of the sum of inductance squared plus the capacitance squared .

C. the cosine of the phase angle

D. the tangent of the phase angle

E. the co-tangent of the displacement angle between real power and apparent power

69. An alternator is rated at 9375 KVA at 0.8 power factor. The actual power delivered will be:

A. 11 718.75 kW

B. 8999 kW

C. 7500 kW

D. 10 000 kW

E. 9375 kW

70. A copper conductor (coefficient of resistance = 0.0039) has a resistance of 4.78 ohms at 60 °C. At 20 °C the resistance would be:

A. 4.176 ohms

B. 502.09 ohms

C. 334.73 ohms

D. 382.40 ohms

E. 1.19 ohms

71. The frequency of a wave having a period of 3 milliseconds is:

A. 6000 Hz

B. 33.33 mHz

C. 333.33 Hz

D. 600 Hz

E. 3000 Hz

72. What type of electrical supply is used by electrostatic precipitators?

A. square wave AC

B. D.C.

C. 60 Hertz AC

D. 25 Hertz AC

E. 5 MegaHertz AC

73. The main opposition to current flow in a motor is:

A. internal resistance of the armature

B. external resistance of the armature

C. field resistance

D. counter emf

E. winding resistance

74. For DC generators, the nearer to zero the percentage voltage regulation is then:

A. the poorer the voltage regulation

B. the greater the voltage regulation

C. the higher the operating temperature possible

D. the better the voltage regulation

75.Which of the following methods is not a means used to start a 3 phase induction motor?

A. Star-delta starting

B. Line impedance starting

C. Auto-transformer starting

D. Armature reaction starting

E. C and D

76. Transformers are cooled by:

1. spraying water over the coils

2. placing the core in an oil filled tank

3. forced cooling by fans

4. using pyrene as a coolant

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 1, 3, 4

C. 1, 2, 4

D. 1, 3

E. 2, 3

77. The universal series motor:

A. is a slow speed motor

B. operates on high frequencies

C. requires higher voltages than other motors

D. will operate on DC or AC up to about 60 Hertz.

E. is most economical in large horsepower capacities

78. A centrifugal switch used with an AC motor:

A. prevents an AC motor from over-speeding should the load drop off.

B. changes from starting conditions to running conditions.

C. changes the power supply to larger fuses should the load increase.

D. shuts down the motor should a malfunction occur.

E. switches between phase current and line current.

79. Magnetic fields do not interact with:

A. stationary electric charges

B. moving electric charges

C. stationary permanent magnets

D. moving permanent magnets

E. A and C

80. Multimeters are sometimes protected by:

A. extra strong cases

D. a variable auto-transformer

81. Ohmmeters are for:

A. continuity measurements

B. measuring electrical potential

C. direct resistance measurement

D. use when a voltmeter is not available

E. A and C above

82. The photocell, when used in flame failure detection:

A. will increase cell resistance when the boiler flame is detected

B. will decrease cell resistance when the boiler flame is detected

C. will remain unchanged

D. will cut off the fuel supply when the flame is detected

E. will generate a current when the boiler flame is detected

83. A example of an image tube whose function is the generation and display of a light image from an electrical input signal is:

1. cathode ray oscilloscope

2. picture tube

3. oscilloscope anode-ray

4. pentode-ray

A. 1, 3

B. 1, 2

C. 3, 4

D. 2, 3

E. 2, 4

84. Properly planned maintenance:

A. eliminates plant outages

B. increases operating costs of equipment

C. reduces unplanned outages of equipment

D. eliminates the need of government inspections

E. reduces plant profits

85. A Third Class Chief Engineer should be familiar with the following maintenance management areas:

1. preventative maintenance

2. management information system

3. work order system

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 1, 3, 4

C. 2, 3, 4

D. 1, 2, 3, 4

E. 1, 2, 4

86. In Alberta, good housekeeping in a power plant is the responbility of the Chief Engineer as implied by the:

1. Boilers and Pressure Vessels Act

2. Safety Codes Act

3. Workers Compensation Act

4. ASME Code

A. 1, 2

B. 3, 4

C. 2, 3

D. 1, 4

E. 1, 3

87. Foundations for machinery are required to:

A. transfer vibration from the prime-mover to surrounding space

B. compensate for misalignment between prime mover and driven machine

C. transfer vibration from prime mover to driven machine

D. absorb vibration from both prime mover and driven machine

E. keep the equipment above floor level in the event of flooding

88. Limp diaphragms for sensing elements are sometimes made from:

A. brass

B. copper

C. rubber

D. steel

E. aluminum

89. Before making adjustments or altering the fuel-air ratio of a combustion control system, the power engineer should:

A. measure the fuel flow

B. analyze the flue gas

C. increase the air flow

D. decrease the firing rate

E. decrease air flow

90. In an orifice meter, the vena contracta is the point where the:

A. velocity is the lowest

B. fluid has the smallest cross sectional area

C. pressure begins to decrease

D. pressure begins to decrease

E. maximum turbulence occurs

91. The devices which are used to change pneumatic signals to computer signals are known as:

A. digital to analog converters

B. differential converters

C. EEPROM converters

D. trending converters

E. analog to digital converters

92. The rotameter is capable of measuring flow using a constant pressure differential and a variable:

A. volume

B. area

C. flow

D. pressure

E. speed

93. Power for operating mechanical cleaning tools used in removing scale or slag from firetube boilers shall be generated:

A. by an alternator of less than 12 volts

B. by a generator of less than 12 volts

C. inside the boiler casing being cleaned

D. outside of the boiler being cleaned

E. by any method other than electrical

94. Which of the following extinguishers would ordinarily be used to combat a Class C fire?

1. carbon dioxide

2. foam

3. dry chemical

4. water

A. 1, 2

B. 3, 4

C. 2, 3

D. 1, 4

E. 1, 3

95. The factors that determine the severity of electrical shock are:

1. time of current flow through the body

2. the path taken

3. the quality of the voltage

4. the quantity of the current

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 2, 3, 4

C. 1, 2, 4

D. 2, 3, 4

E. 1, 2, 3, 4

96. Plant safety committees should be made up of people from:

A. management only

B. municipal firemen and management

C. municipal firemen, management, supervisors and operators

D. management, supervisors, and operators

E. management and safety experts

97. The purpose of the recovery of the L.P.G. and gasoline process, used in a natural gas treatment plant is to:

1. remove gasoline constituents

2. purify propane and butane

3. remove liquefiable hydrocarbons

4. fractionate the hydrocarbons

A. 1, 2

B. 2, 3

C. 1, 4

D. 2, 4

E. 1, 3

98. A surge tower used in hydro electric generation stations is for:

A. low periods of operation

B. stability of operation

C. prevention of damage from a low head condition

D. prevention of turbine over-speed

E. reserve capacity

99. Natural gas treatment plants remove which of the following from the gas?

1. hydrocarbon condensate

2. sulfurous compounds

3. non-combustible gases

4. water vapour

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 1, 2, 4

C. 2, 3, 4

D. 1, 3, 4

E. 1, 2, 3, 4

100. Which of the following is not part of a total energy system?

A. absorption chiller

B. waste heat boiler

C. steam turbine

D. generator

E. heat pump