Home » Sample Questions » 3rd Class Part A printer friendly version

Sample Questions - Third Class

(NOTE: these questions are intended as representations of the style of questions that may appear on examinations, they are not intended as study material and, as such, may not be in line with any current examination syllabus)

1.

In a right angle triangle, the sine of an acute angle is equal to:


  A. adjacent side / hypotenuse D. opposite side / hypotenuse
  B. adjacent side / opposite side E hypotenuse / opposite side
  C. adjacent side / opposite side    
         
 

Answer: D


 
2.

If a right-angle triangle has an angle of 28O 37' and the hypotenuse is 120 mm, the length of the opposite side is:


  A. 105.34 mm D. 250.5 mm
  B. 57.48 mm E. 221 mm
  C. 136.70 mm    
         
 

Answer: B


 
3.

In the equation 0.004 + D = 0.0042, the value of D is:


  A. 1.05 D. 0.0082
  B. 1.68 x 10-5 E. -0.0082
  C. 0.0002    
         
 

Answer: C


 
4.

As the cosine decreases, the


  A. value of the angle decreases D. A and C above
  B. value of the angle increases E. none of the above
  C. value of the hypotenuse decreases    
         
 

Answer: B


 
5.

Any two angles whose sum is 90o are:


  A. complementary angles D. obtuse angles
  B. right angles E. reflex angles
  C. tangent to each other    
         
 

Answer: A


 
6.

One is the trigonometric value of:


  A. sine of 90o D. A, B and C above
  B. cosine of 0o E. A and C above
  C. tangent of 45o    
         
 

Answer: D


 
7.

A automobile travels at 60 miles per hour. Expressed in metres per second, this would be equivalent to:


  A. 0.0268 m/s D. 348 m/s
  B. 26.81 m/s E. 34.8 m/s
  C. 1609 m/s    
         
 

Answer: B


 
8.

The force that is equal in magnitude but opposite in direction to the resultant force is called:


  A. the component D. the impedance
  B. the element E. the displacement
  C. the equilibrant    
         
 

Answer: C


 
9.

A scalar quantity is one which has only magnitude and can be fully described by:


  A. giving direction D. length, width and height
  B. a number with the necessary unit E. volume and density
  C. using a force term    
         
 

Answer: B


 
10.

A body can be put into equilibrium by applying an additional force equal in magnitude but opposite in direction to the:


  A. scalar D. resultant
  B. vector E. component
  C. equilibrant    
         
 

Answer: D


 
11.

A displacement of 9 m north of point A, and another of 6 m west of point A can be added to give a resultant displacement from point A of:


  A. 15 m N of W D. D. 12.5 m N of W
  B. 3 m N of W E. E. 10.8 m N of W
  C. 10 m N of W    
         
 

Answer: E


 
12.

The moment of a force about a point is:


  A. the component that will cause equilibrium D.  
  B. the force x resultant E.  
  C. the force x equilibrant    
  D. a twisting or turning effect    
  E. equal to velocity/gravity    
         
 

Answer: D


 
13.

When the co-efficient of friction increases and the force between two surfaces remains constant, the friction force will:


  A. remain constant D. move the weight easier
  B. decrease E. decrease exponentially
  C. increase    
         
 

Answer: C


 
14.

A body having a gravitational force of 2000 N, is pulled along a horizontal surface at constant speed by a rope that makes an angle of 20o above the horizontal. If the pull on the rope is 150 N, the coefficient of sliding friction is:


  A. 0.0257 D. 0.0723
  B. 0.0275 E. 0.075
  C. 0.0705    
         
 

Answer: D


 
15.

Energy can be:


  A. created D. A and C
  B. transformed to different forms E. all of the above
  C. destroyed    
         
 

Answer: B


 
16.

Velocity ratio is:


  A. ideal efficiency D. ideal mechanical advantage
  B. actual mechanical advantage E. final speed divided by initial speed
  C. actual efficiency    
         
 

Answer: D


 
17.

A 1 N weight has a kinetic energy of 1 J when its speed is:


  A. 0.45 m/s D. 4.4 m/s
  B. 1 m/s E. 44 m/s
  C. 1.4 m/s    
         
 

Answer: D


 
18.

The working stress of a material that has an ultimate strength of 490 MPa and a safety factor of 7 would be:


  A. 70 MPa D. 34 300 kPa
  B. 3430 MPa E. 490 kPa
  C. 7000 kPa    
         
 

Answer: A


 
19.

According to Hooke's Law, the stress in an elastic body is directly proportional to the strain if:


  A. the yield point of the material is exceeded    
  B. the elastic limit of the material is not exceeded    
  C. the elastic limit of the material is exceeded    
  D. the load is applied vertically    
  E. the factor of safety is not exceeded
   
         
 

Answer: B


 
20.

The factor of safety is always expressed:


  A. in kPa D. in Joules
  B. in Newton metres E. as a ratio
  C. as a product    
         
 

Answer: E


 
21.

When calculating the ultimate stress of a material, we should:


  A. multiply the maximum load by the original cross-sectional area .  
  B. multiply the maximum load by the original cross-sectional area    
  C. divide the maximum load by the new cross-sectional area    
  D. divide the breaking load by the new cross-sectional area    
  E. divide the maximum load by the original cross-sectional area    
         
 

Answer: E


 
22.

Safe working stress is determined by:


  A. interpolation D.  
  B. extrapolation E.  
  C. dividing the ultimate strength by the factor of safety    
  D. multiplying the ultimate strength by the strain    
  E. the average value of breaking stress determined by testing    
         
 

Answer: C


 
23.

A 6 m long cantilever beam carries a concentrated load of 45 kN at its free end. What is the shear force at the wall?


  A. 270 kNm D. 0.133 kN
  B. 270 kN E. 45 kN
  C. 7.5 kN/m    
         
 

Answer: E


 
24.

When classifying beams, the term simple beam refers to a beam:


  A. that is supporting one concentrated load    
  B. that supports a uniform load .  
  C. that is supported at two ends    
  D. that is supported at one end
   
  E. that is supported at any number of points    
         
 

Answer: C


 
25.

The term _____ is used as a measure of the quantity of matter.


  A. volume D. relative density
  B. weight E. specific gravity
  C. mass    
         
 

Answer: C


 
26.

A 10 m long steel pipe when heated to increase its temperature by 85° C, will expand approximately:


  A. 1 cm D. 1.2 mm
  B. 0.6 m E. 85 mm
  C. 6 mm    
         
 

Answer: A


 
27.

The most common scale in use is the:


  A. Fahrenheit D. Kelvin
  B. Celsius E. Absolute
  C. Rankine    
         
 

Answer: B


 
28.

Four pieces of iron are heated in a furnace to high temperatures. The one at the highest temperature would appear:


  A. rusty D. red
  B. yellow E. white
  C. orange    
         
 

Answer: E


 
29.

The amount of heat required to completely melt 25 kg of ice from a temperature of –10o C is approximately:


  A. 8885 kJ D. 250 kJ
  B. 4125 kJ E. 8908 kJ
  C. 615 kJ    
         
 

Answer: E


 
30.

"Heat will flow from a hot substance to a colder substance unaided, but it is impossible for heat to flow from a cold substance to a hotter one without the aid of mechanical work" is:


  A. the first law of thermodynamics D. Boyle's Law
  B. Charles' Law E. None of the above
  C. the mechanical equivalent of heat    
         
 

Answer: E


 
31.

The heat required to raise the temperature of water at a pressure of 225 kPa from 0C to 124C is:


  A. 2712.1 kJ/kg D. 504.7 kJ/kg
  B. 518.7 kJ/kg E. 520.72 kJ/kg
  C. 2191.3 kJ/kg    
         
 

Answer: E


 
32.

When heat is supplied to a liquid in sufficient quantity to change the liquid to a vapour without changing the temperature, the heat supplied is known as:


  A. latent heat of gasification D. sensible heat of evaporation
  B. latent heat of volatilization E. latent heat of fusion
  C. latent heat of evaporation    
         
 

Answer: C


 
33.

The dryness fraction of steam at a pressure of 400 kPa and a heat content of 2500 kJ/kg is:


  A. 0.89 D. 0.39
  B. 0.91 E. 0.99
  C. 0.92    
         
 

Answer: A


 
34.

The temperature of saturated steam vapor at 980 kPa is:


  A. 176.36° C D. 181.24° C
  B. 179.02° C E. 179.91° C
  C. 179.58° C    
         
 

Answer: B


 
35.

Steam engines, steam turbines, gas turbines and internal combustion engines are examples of:


  A. reciprocating engines D. thermodynamic pumps
  B. heat engines E. heat pumps
  C. rotary engines    
         
 

Answer: B


 
36.

The rate at which heat flow through a slab of a material does not depend on:


  A. the temperature difference between the faces of the slab    
  B. the thickness of the slab    
  C. the area of the slab    
  D. the specific heat of the material    
  E. the thermal conductivity of the slab    
         
 

Answer: D


 
37.

Expansion of a gas is said to be adiabatic when expansion takes place at :


  A. constant temperature D. constant volume
  B. rising temperature E. constant pressure
  C. falling temperature    
         
 

Answer: C


 
38.

If 10 m3 of a gas at a pressure of 20 kPa (gauge) and a temperature of 10o C are compressed to 5 m3 while the temperature is reduced to –20o C, the final gauge pressure will be: (Consider the atmospheric pressure to be 95 kPa)


  A. 110.6 kPa D. 460 kPa
  B. 205.6 kPa E. 516 kPa
  C. 365 kPa    
         
 

Answer: A


 
39

Use of the equation PV = a constant, means the numerical result of pressure times volume for a compression or expansion process will:


  A. decrease as the temperature increases    
  B. increase as the temperature increases    
  C. change from positive to negative for an increasing vacuum    
  D. be the same at any point in the process    
  E. vary depending on the speed of compression or expansion    
         
 

Answer: D


 
40.

A gas occupies 8.62 m3 at 1800 kPa and 26C. It is heated until the final volume is 9.0 m3 and pressure is 2500 kPa. the final temperature will be approximately:

  A. 276C D. 161C
  B. 136C E. 252C
  C. 433C    
         
 

Answer: D


 
41.

H2SO4 is the chemical formula for:


  A. carbonic acid D. hydrochloric acid
  B. sulfuric acid E. hydrogen sulfide
  C. nitric acid    
         
 

Answer: B


 
42.

Protons have a mass number of:


  A. Almost zero D. Twelve
  B. One E. Two
  C. Six    
         
 

Answer: B


 
43.

A pinch of salt is added to a glass of water. The result is:


  A. an element D. a heterogeneous substance
  B. a compound E. a compound
  C. a solution    
         
 

Answer: C


 
44.

Compounds classified as salts may have the following characteristics:


  1. have a basic effect 3. be neutral
  2. have an acid effect 4. 4. change red litmus paper blue
         
  A. 1, 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3, 4
  B. 1, 3, 4 E. 1, 2, 4
  C. 2, 3, 4    
         
 

Answer: D


 
45.

The most common material used in making large industrial diesel engine pistons is:


  A. Carbon steel D. Bronze
  B. Cast iron E. Aluminum
  C. Brass    
         
 

Answer: B


 
46.

Malleable cast iron is produced by:


  A. adding carbon to pig iron    
  B. reducing iron content    
  C. heating and cooling white cast iron at a controlled rate    
  D. adding graphite    
  E. heating and striking the hot metal with a hammer to compact the material    
         
 

Answer: C


 
47.

Steam turbine bearings are usually made of:


  1. white metal 3. bronze
  2. brass 4. Aluminum