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Sample Questions - Third Class

(NOTE: these questions are intended as representations of the style of questions that may appear on examinations, they are not intended as study material and, as such, may not be in line with any current examination syllabus)

1.

In a right angle triangle, the sine of an acute angle is equal to:


  A. adjacent side / hypotenuse D. opposite side / hypotenuse
  B. adjacent side / opposite side E. hypotenuse / opposite side
  C. adjacent side / opposite side    
         
 

Answer: D


 
2.

If a right-angle triangle has an angle of 28O 37' and the hypotenuse is 120 mm,
the length of the opposite side is:


  A. 105.34 mm D. 250.5 mm
  B. 57.48 mm E. 221 mm
  C. 136.70 mm    
         
 

Answer: B


 
3.

In the equation 0.004 + D = 0.0042, the value of D is:


  A. 1.05 D. 0.0082
  B. 1.68 x 10-5 E. -0.0082
  C. 0.0002    
         
 

Answer: C


 
4.

As the cosine decreases, the


  A. value of the angle decreases D. A and C above
  B. value of the angle increases E. none of the above
  C. value of the hypotenuse decreases    
         
 

Answer: B


 
5.

Any two angles whose sum is 90° are:


  A. complementary angles D. obtuse angles
  B. right angles E. reflex angles
  C. tangent to each other    
         
 

Answer: A


 
6.

One is the trigonometric value of:


  A. sine of 90° D. A, B and C above
  B. cosine of 0° E. A and C above
  C. tangent of 45°    
         
 

Answer: D


 
7.

A automobile travels at 60 miles per hour. Expressed in metres per second, this would be equivalent to:


  A. 0.0268 m/s D. 348 m/s
  B. 26.81 m/s E. 34.8 m/s
  C. 1609 m/s    
         
 

Answer: B


 
8.

The force that is equal in magnitude but opposite in direction to the resultant force is called:


  A. the component D. the impedance
  B. the element E. the displacement
  C. the equilibrant    
         
 

Answer: C


 
9.

A scalar quantity is one which has only magnitude and can be fully described by:


  A. giving direction D. length, width and height
  B. a number with the necessary unit E. volume and density
  C. using a force term    
         
 

Answer: B


 
10.

A body can be put into equilibrium by applying an additional force equal in magnitude but opposite in direction to the:


  A. scalar D. resultant
  B. vector E. component
  C. equilibrant    
         
 

Answer: D


 
11.

A displacement of 9 m north of point A, and another of 6 m west of point A can be added to give a resultant displacement from point A of:


  A. 15 m N of W D. D. 12.5 m N of W
  B. 3 m N of W E. E. 10.8 m N of W
  C. 10 m N of W    
         
 

Answer: E


 
12.

The moment of a force about a point is:


  A. the component that will cause equilibrium  
  B. the force x resultant  
  C. the force x equilibrant    
  D. a twisting or turning effect    
  E. equal to velocity/gravity    
         
 

Answer: D


 
13.

When the co-efficient of friction increases and the force between two surfaces remains constant, the friction force will:


  A. remain constant D. move the weight easier
  B. decrease E. decrease exponentially
  C. increase    
         
 

Answer: C


 
14.

A body having a gravitational force of 2000 N, is pulled along a horizontal surface at constant speed by a rope that makes an angle of 20° above the horizontal. If the pull on the rope is 150 N, the coefficient of sliding friction is:


  A. 0.0257 D. 0.0723
  B. 0.0275 E. 0.075
  C. 0.0705    
         
 

Answer: D


 
15.

Energy can be:


  A. created D. A and C
  B. transformed to different forms E. all of the above
  C. destroyed    
         
 

Answer: B


 
16.

Velocity ratio is:


  A. ideal efficiency D. ideal mechanical advantage
  B. actual mechanical advantage E. final speed divided by initial speed
  C. actual efficiency    
         
 

Answer: D


 
17.

A 1 N weight has a kinetic energy of 1 J when its speed is:


  A. 0.45 m/s D. 4.4 m/s
  B. 1 m/s E. 44 m/s
  C. 1.4 m/s    
         
 

Answer: D


 
18.

The working stress of a material that has an ultimate strength of 490 MPa and a safety factor of  7 would be:


  A. 70 MPa D. 34 300 kPa
  B. 3430 MPa E. 490 kPa
  C. 7000 kPa    
         
 

Answer: A


 
19.

According to Hooke's Law, the stress in an elastic body is directly proportional to the strain if:


  A. the yield point of the material is exceeded    
  B. the elastic limit of the material is not exceeded    
  C. the elastic limit of the material is exceeded    
  D. the load is applied vertically    
  E. the factor of safety is not exceeded
   
         
 

Answer: B


 
20.

The factor of safety is always expressed:


  A. in kPa D. in Joules
  B. in Newton metres E. as a ratio
  C. as a product    
         
 

Answer: E


 
21.

When calculating the ultimate stress of a material, we should:


  A. multiply the maximum load by the original cross-sectional area    
  B. multiply the maximum load by the original cross-sectional area    
  C. divide the maximum load by the new cross-sectional area    
  D. divide the breaking load by the new cross-sectional area    
  E. divide the maximum load by the original cross-sectional area    
         
 

Answer: E


 
22.

Safe working stress is determined by:


  A. interpolation    
  B. extrapolation    
  C. dividing the ultimate strength by the factor of safety    
  D. multiplying the ultimate strength by the strain    
  E. the average value of breaking stress determined by testing    
         
 

Answer: C


 
23.

A 6 m long cantilever beam carries a concentrated load of 45 kN at its free end. What is the shear force at the wall?


  A. 270 kNm D. 0.133 kN
  B. 270 kN E. 45 kN
  C. 7.5 kN/m    
         
 

Answer: E


 
24.

When classifying beams, the term simple beam refers to a beam:


  A. that is supporting one concentrated load    
  B. that supports a uniform load .  
  C. that is supported at two ends    
  D. that is supported at one end
   
  E. that is supported at any number of points    
         
 

Answer: C


 
25.

The term _____ is used as a measure of the quantity of matter.


  A. volume D. relative density
  B. weight E. specific gravity
  C. mass    
         
 

Answer: C


 
26.

A 10 m long steel pipe when heated to increase its temperature by 85 °C, will expand approximately:


  A. 1 cm D. 1.2 mm
  B. 0.6 m E. 85 mm
  C. 6 mm    
         
 

Answer: A


 
27.

The most common scale in use is the:


  A. Fahrenheit D. Kelvin
  B. Celsius E. Absolute
  C. Rankine    
         
 

Answer: B


 
28.

Four pieces of iron are heated in a furnace to high temperatures. The one at the highest temperature would appear:


  A. rusty D. red
  B. yellow E. white
  C. orange    
         
 

Answer: E


 
29.

The amount of heat required to completely melt 25 kg of ice from a temperature of
–10 °C is approximately:


  A. 8885 kJ D. 250 kJ
  B. 4125 kJ E. 8908 kJ
  C. 615 kJ    
         
 

Answer: E


 
30.

"Heat will flow from a hot substance to a colder substance unaided, but it is impossible for heat to flow from a cold substance to a hotter one without the aid of mechanical work" is:


  A. the first law of thermodynamics D. Boyle's Law
  B. Charles' Law E. None of the above
  C. the mechanical equivalent of heat    
         
 

Answer: E


 
31.

The heat required to raise the temperature of water at a pressure of 225 kPa from
0 °C to 124 °C is:


  A. 2712.1 kJ/kg D. 504.7 kJ/kg
  B. 518.7 kJ/kg E. 520.72 kJ/kg
  C. 2191.3 kJ/kg    
         
 

Answer: E


 
32.

When heat is supplied to a liquid in sufficient quantity to change the liquid to a vapour without changing the temperature, the heat supplied is known as:


  A. latent heat of gasification D. sensible heat of evaporation
  B. latent heat of volatilization E. latent heat of fusion
  C. latent heat of evaporation    
         
 

Answer: C


 
33.

The dryness fraction of steam at a pressure of 400 kPa and a heat content of
2500 kJ/kg is:


  A. 0.89 D. 0.39
  B. 0.91 E. 0.99
  C. 0.92    
         
 

Answer: A


 
34.

The temperature of saturated steam vapor at 980 kPa is:


  A. 176.36 °C D. 181.24 °C
  B. 179.02 °C E. 179.91 °C
  C. 179.58 °C    
         
 

Answer: B


 
35.

Steam engines, steam turbines, gas turbines and internal combustion engines are examples of:


  A. reciprocating engines D. thermodynamic pumps
  B. heat engines E. heat pumps
  C. rotary engines    
         
 

Answer: B


 
36.

The rate at which heat flow through a slab of a material does not depend on:


  A. the temperature difference between the faces of the slab    
  B. the thickness of the slab    
  C. the area of the slab    
  D. the specific heat of the material    
  E. the thermal conductivity of the slab    
         
 

Answer: D


 
37.

Expansion of a gas is said to be adiabatic when expansion takes place at :


  A. constant temperature D. constant volume
  B. rising temperature E. constant pressure
  C. falling temperature    
         
 

Answer: C


 
38.

If 10 m3 of a gas at a pressure of 20 kPa (gauge) and a temperature of 10 °C are compressed to 5 m3 while the temperature is reduced to –20 °C, the final gauge pressure will be: (Consider the atmospheric pressure to be 95 kPa)

  A. 110.6 kPa D. 460 kPa
  B. 205.6 kPa E. 516 kPa
  C. 365 kPa    
         
 

Answer: A


 
39

Use of the equation PV = a constant, means the numerical result of pressure times volume for a compression or expansion process will:

  A. decrease as the temperature increases    
  B. increase as the temperature increases    
  C. change from positive to negative for an increasing vacuum    
  D. be the same at any point in the process    
  E. vary depending on the speed of compression or expansion    
         
 

Answer: D


 
40.

A gas occupies 8.62 m3 at 1800 kPa and 26 °C. It is heated until the final volume is 9.0 m3 and pressure is 2500 kPa. the final temperature will be approximately:

  A. 276 °C D. 161 °C
  B. 136 °C E. 252 °C
  C. 433 °C    
         
 

Answer: D


 
41.

H2SO4 is the chemical formula for:


  A. carbonic acid D. hydrochloric acid
  B. sulfuric acid E. hydrogen sulfide
  C. nitric acid    
         
 

Answer: B


 
42.

Protons have a mass number of:


  A. Almost zero D. Twelve
  B. One E. Two
  C. Six    
         
 

Answer: B


 
43.

A pinch of salt is added to a glass of water. The result is:


  A. an element D. a heterogeneous substance
  B. a compound E. a compound
  C. a solution    
         
 

Answer: C


 
44.

Compounds classified as salts may have the following characteristics:


  1. have a basic effect 3. be neutral
  2. have an acid effect 4. 4. change red litmus paper blue
         
  A. 1, 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3, 4
  B. 1, 3, 4 E. 1, 2, 4
  C. 2, 3, 4    
         
 

Answer: D


 
45.

The most common material used in making large industrial diesel engine pistons is:


  A. Carbon steel D. Bronze
  B. Cast iron E. Aluminum
  C. Brass    
         
 

Answer: B


 
46.

Malleable cast iron is produced by:


  A. adding carbon to pig iron    
  B. reducing iron content    
  C. heating and cooling white cast iron at a controlled rate    
  D. adding graphite    
  E. heating and striking the hot metal with a hammer to compact the material    
         
 

Answer: C


 
47.

Steam turbine bearings are usually made of:


  1. white metal 3. bronze
  2. brass 4. Aluminum
         
  A. 1, 2 D. 2, 3
  B. 1, 3 E. 3, 4
  C. 1, 4    
         
 

Answer: B


 
48.

The most common thread used in North America on fasteners such as bolts, is the:


  A. Whitworth D. American National Standards Institute
  B. Unified National E. American Society of Mechanical Engineers
  C. Unified Standard    
         
 

Answer: B


 
49.

Orthographic projection means:


  A. view with base lines at 45 degrees D. view with base lines at 30 degrees
  B. views at right angles E. view with base lines at 60 degrees
  C. view of a cutting plane    
         
 

Answer: C


 
50.

The classes of fastening devices are:


  A. bolts and glue D. welds and bolts
  B. rivets and bolts E. threaded and mechanical
  C. permanent and removable    
         
 

Answer: C


 
51.

(Jurisdictional Question) A Third Class Engineer's Certificate of Competency qualifies the holder to work as a Chief Engineer for a power plant not exceeding:


  A. 3000 kW D. 5000 kW
  B. 2000 kW E. 15 000 kW
  C. 10 000 kW    
         
 

Answer: D (for Alberta) 


 
52.

(Jurisdictional Question) In Alberta, Boiler and Pressure Vessel Safety is regulated by:


  A. the Boilers and Pressure Vessels Act    
  B. the Design, Construction and Installation of Boilers and Pressure Vessels Regulations    
  C. the ASME Code    
  D. the Alberta Labour Act    
  E. the Safety Codes Act    
         
 

Answer: E


 
53.

(Jurisdictional Question) A Third Class Certificate of Competency enables the holder to work as a shift Engineer of a power plant not exceeding:


  A. 1000 kW D. 15 000 kW
  B. 5000 kW E. none of the above
  C. 10 000 kW    
         
 

Answer: C (for Alberta)


 
54.

Safety valves shall be designed to attain full lift at a pressure above set pressure but not exceeding:


  A. 0.6% D. 3%
  B. 6% E. 4%
  C. 5%    
         
 

Answer: D


 
55.

A passage way of at least ______ metres in width and clear of all obstructions shall be provided on both sides and the rear of the boiler.


  A. 3.0 D. 0.6
  B. 2.0 E. 1.0
  C. 0.5    
         
 

Answer: D


 
56.

The blow-off tank for a boiler operating at 2200 kPa must have a design pressure of at least:


  A. 1000 kPa D. 500 kPa
  B. 690 kPa E. 220 kPa
  C. 490 kPa    
         
 

Answer: B


 
57.

A hydrostatic test consists of completely filling the boiler with water and the applying a water pressure:


  A. 2 times the maximum allowable working pressure    
  B. 3 times the maximum allowable working pressure .  
  C. 1.5 times the maximum allowable working pressure    
  D. 2.5 times the maximum allowable working pressure    
  E. equal to the maximum allowable working pressure    
         
 

Answer: C


 
58.

Which of the following equation(s) is/are correct for complete combustion?


  1. C + O2 = CO 3. C + CO2 = 2CO
  2. 2H2 + O2 = 2H2O 4. S + O2 = 2SO
       
  A. 1,  3 D. 3
  B. 1 E. 4
  C. 2    
         
 

Answer: C


 
59.

The formation of carbon monoxide in the furnace is undesirable because it is:


  1. explosive 3. non-combustible
  2. poisonous 4. inefficient
         
  A. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2, 3 and 4
  B. 1, 2 and 4 E. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  C. 1, 3 and 4    
         
 

Answer: B


 
60.

The advantages of oil over coal as a boiler fuel are:


  1. reduced storage problems 4. less labour required
  2. harder to control 5. lower combustion efficiency
  3. less handling equipment    
         
  A. 1, 4, 5 D. 2, 3, 4
  B. 3, 4, 5 E. 1, 2, 5
  C. 1, 3, 4    
         
 

Answer: C


 
61.

Complete combustion will take place only when:


  1. the temperature of the fuel-air mixture will be at least equal to the ignition temperature.    
  2. there is sufficient oxygen present for combustion.    
  3. the oxygen is in intimate contact with the fuel.    
  4. there is an excess of fuel present for combustion.    
         
   
  A. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 3
  B. 1, 2 and 4 E. 1 and 4 only
  C. 2, 3 and 4    
         
 

Answer: D


 
62.

The swing check valve:


  A. offers high resistance to flow    
  B. offers little resistance to flow    
  C. has a dashpot in its design to cushion the action of the disc    
  D. causes the flow though the check valve to change direction    
  E. none of the above    
         
 

Answer: B


 
63.

In order to prevent leakage at low pressure steam flange connections:


  A. rubber gaskets should be used    
  B. faces should be concave so the gasket will adhere to the flange    
  C. plastic gaskets should be used    
  D. silicone gaskets should be used    
  E. none of the above    
         
 

Answer: E


 
64.

Steam separators:


  1. cause the steam to suddenly change its direction    
  2. impart a whirling motion to the steam .  
  3. use baffles to cause the steam flow to change direction    
  4. are not required on steam turbine lines    
  5. are sometimes called steam purifiers    
 
 


  A. 1, 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3, 5
  B. 1, 2, 3, 4 E. 1, 4, 5
  C. 3, 4, 5    
         
 

Answer: D


 
65.

As the temperature of carbon conductors rises, the electrical resistance generally:


  A. Increases linearly D. Increases hyperpolically
  B. Decreases E. Increases parabolically
  C. Remains constant    
         
 

Answer: B


 
66.

The resistance of a conductor does not depend on its:


  A. mass D. resistivity
  B. length E. temperature
  C. cross-sectional area    
         
 

Answer: A


 
67.

The total currents away from a point equal:


  A. the algebraic sum of all currents D. zero
  B. sum of currents into the point E. the circuit rating
  C. sum of currents in all directions    
         
 

Answer: B


 
68.

The power factor of an AC circuit is equal to:


  A. the sine of the phase angle    
  B. the square root of the sum of inductance squared plus the capacitance squared .  
  C. the cosine of the phase angle    
  D. the tangent of the phase angle    
  E. the co-tangent of the displacement angle between real power and apparent power    
         
 

Answer: C


 
69.

An alternator is rated at 9375 KVA at 0.8 power factor. The actual power delivered will be:


  A. 11 718.75 kW D. 10 000 kW
  B. 8999 kW E. 9375 kW
  C. 7500 kW    
         
 

Answer: C


 
70.

A copper conductor (coefficient of resistance = 0.0039) has a resistance of
4.78 ohms at 60 °C. At 20 °C the resistance would be:


  A. 4.176 ohms D. 382.40 ohms
  B. 502.09 ohms E. 1.19 ohms
  C. 334.73 ohms    
         
 

Answer: A


 
71.

The frequency of a wave having a period of 3 milliseconds is:


  A. 6000 Hz D. 600 Hz
  B. 33.33 mHz E. 3000 Hz
  C. 333.33 Hz    
         
 

Answer: C


 
72.

What type of electrical supply is used by electrostatic precipitators?


  A. square wave AC D. 25 Hertz AC
  B. D.C. E. 5 MegaHertz AC
  C. 60 Hertz AC    
         
 

Answer: B


 
73.

The main opposition to current flow in a motor is:


  A. internal resistance of the armature D. counter emf
  B. external resistance of the armature E. winding resistance
  C. field resistance    
         
 

Answer: D


 
74.

For DC generators, the nearer to zero the percentage voltage regulation is then:


  A. the poorer the voltage regulation    
  B. the greater the voltage regulation    
  C. the higher the operating temperature possible    
  D. the better the voltage regulation    
  E. the smaller the difference between no-load and full-load voltage    
         
 

Answer: D


 
75.

Which of the following methods is not a means used to start a 3 phase induction motor?


  A. Star-delta starting D. Armature reaction starting
  B. Line impedance starting E. C and D
  C. Auto-transformer starting    
         
 

Answer: D


 
76.

Transformers are cooled by:


  1. spraying water over the coils 3. forced cooling by fans
  2. placing the core in an oil filled tank 4. using pyrene as a coolant
         
  A. 1, 2, 3 D. 1, 3 
  B. 1, 3, 4 E. 2, 3 
  C. 1, 2, 4    
         
 

Answer: E


 
77.

The universal series motor:


  A. is a slow speed motor    
  B. operates on high frequencies    
  C. requires higher voltages than other motors    
  D. will operate on DC or AC up to about 60 Hertz.    
  E. is most economical in large horsepower capacities    
         
 

Answer: D


 
78.

A centrifugal switch used with an AC motor:


  A. prevents an AC motor from over-speeding should the load drop off.    
  B. changes from starting conditions to running conditions.    
  C. changes the power supply to larger fuses should the load increase.    
  D. shuts down the motor should a malfunction occur.    
  E. switches between phase current and line current.    
         
 

Answer: B


 
79.

Magnetic fields do not interact with:


  A. stationary electric charges D. moving permanent magnets
  B. moving electric charges E. A and C
  C. stationary permanent magnets    
         
 

Answer: A


 
80.

Multimeters are sometimes protected by:


  A. extra strong cases D. a variable auto-transformer
  B. circuit overload protection E. high impedance leads
  C. high resistance leads    
         
 

Answer: B


 
81.

Ohmmeters are for:


  A. continuity measurements D. use when a voltmeter is not available
  B. measuring electrical potential E. A and C above
  C. direct resistance measurement    
         
 

Answer: E


 
82.

The photocell, when used in flame failure detection:


  A. will increase cell resistance when the boiler flame is detected    
  B. will decrease cell resistance when the boiler flame is detected    
  C. will remain unchanged    
  D. will cut off the fuel supply when the flame is detected    
  E. will generate a current when the boiler flame is detected    
         
 

Answer: B


 
83.

A example of an image tube whose function is the generation and display of a light image from an electrical input signal is:


  1. cathode ray oscilloscope 3. oscilloscope anode-ray
  2. picture tube 4. pentode-ray
         
  A. 1, 3 D. 2, 3
  B. 1, 2 E. 2, 4
  C. 3, 4    
         
 

Answer:B


 
84.

Properly planned maintenance:


  A. eliminates plant outages    
  B. increases operating costs of equipment    
  C. reduces unplanned outages of equipment    
  D. eliminates the need of government inspections    
  E. reduces plant profits    
         
 

Answer: C


 
85.

A Third Class Chief Engineer should be familiar with the following maintenance management areas:


  1. preventative maintenance    
  2. management information system    
  3. work order system    
         
  A. 1, 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3, 4
  B. 1, 3, 4 E. 1, 2, 4
  C. 2, 3, 4    
         
 

Answer: B


 
86.

In Alberta, good housekeeping in a power plant is the responbility of the Chief  Engineer as implied by the:


  1. Boilers and Pressure Vessels Act 3. Workers Compensation Act
  2. Safety Codes Act 4. ASME Code
         
  A. 1, 2 D. 1, 4
  B. 3, 4 E. 1, 3
  C. 2, 3    
         
 

Answer: C


 
87.

Foundations for machinery are required to:


  A. transfer vibration from the prime-mover to surrounding space    
  B. compensate for misalignment between prime mover and driven machine    
  C. transfer vibration from prime mover to driven machine    
  D. absorb vibration from both prime mover and driven machine    
  E. keep the equipment above floor level in the event of flooding    
         
 

Answer: D


 
88.

Limp diaphragms for sensing elements are sometimes made from:


  A. brass D. steel
  B. copper E. aluminum
  C. rubber    
         
 

Answer: C


 
89.

Before making adjustments or altering the fuel-air ratio of a combustion control system, the power engineer should:


  A. measure the fuel flow D. decrease the firing rate
  B. analyze the flue gas E. decrease air flow
  C. increase the air flow    
         
 

Answer: B


 
90.

In an orifice meter, the vena contracta is the point where the:


  A. velocity is the lowest    
  B. fluid has the smallest cross sectional area    
  C. pressure begins to decrease    
  D. pressure begins to decrease    
  E. maximum turbulence occurs    
         
 

Answer: B


 
91.

The devices which are used to change pneumatic signals to computer signals are known as:


  A. digital to analog converters D. trending converters
  B. differential converters E. analog to digital converters
  C. EEPROM converters    
         
 

Answer: E


 
92.

The rotameter is capable of measuring flow using a constant pressure differential and a variable:


  A. volume D. pressure
  B. area E. speed
  C. flow    
         
 

Answer: B


 
93.

Power for operating mechanical cleaning tools used in removing scale or slag from firetube boilers shall be generated:


  A. by an alternator of less than 12 volts    
  B. by a generator of less than 12 volts    
  C. inside the boiler casing being cleaned    
  D. outside of the boiler being cleaned    
  E. by any method other than electrical    
         
 

Answer: D


 
94.

Which of the following extinguishers would ordinarily be used to combat a Class C fire?


  1. carbon dioxide 3. dry chemical
  2. foam 4. water
         
  A. 1, 2 D. 1, 4
  B. 3, 4 E. 1, 3
  C. 2, 3    
         
 

Answer: E


 
95.

The factors that determine the severity of electrical shock are:


  1. time of current flow through the body 3. the quality of the voltage
  2. the path taken 4. the quantity of the current
         
  A. 1, 2, 3 D. 2, 3, 4
  B. 2, 3, 4 E. 1, 2, 3, 4
  C. 1, 2, 4    
         
 

Answer: C


 
96.

Plant safety committees should be made up of people from:


  A. management only    
  B. municipal firemen and management    
  C. municipal firemen, management, supervisors and operators    
  D. management, supervisors, and operators    
  E. management and safety experts    
         
 

Answer: D


 
97.

The purpose of the recovery of the L.P.G. and gasoline process, used in a natural gas treatment plant is to:


  1. remove gasoline constituents 3. remove liquefiable hydrocarbons
  2. purify propane and butane 4. fractionate the hydrocarbons
         
  A. 1, 2 D. 2, 4
  B. 2, 3 E. 1, 3
  C. 1, 4    
         
 

Answer: E


 
98.

A surge tower used in hydro electric generation stations is for:


  A. low periods of operation D. prevention of turbine over-speed
  B. stability of operation E. reserve capacity
  C. prevention of damage from a low head condition    
         
 

Answer: B


 
99.

Natural gas treatment plants remove which of the following from the gas?


  1. hydrocarbon condensate 3. non-combustible gases
  2. sulfurous compounds 4. water vapour
         
  A. 1, 2, 3 D. 1, 3, 4
  B. 1, 2, 4 E. 1, 2, 3, 4
  C. 2, 3, 4    
         
 

Answer: E


 
100.

Which of the following is not part of a total energy system?


  A. absorption chiller D. generator
  B. waste heat boiler E. heat pump
  C. steam turbine    
         
 

Answer: C


 

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Updated Jun 25, 2008
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